The implications of Hebrew’s lack of a future tense for interpretation of prophecy:
Among my many roles in life, I have
been a teacher of Physics, Mathematics, and IT[1]
and have always tried to determine where my students go wrong in their attempt to
answer a question. If I can be fairly sure about where their thinking goes
off-track, then I am able to specifically address this point in their deductive
reasoning and hopefully help them correct this mistake and achieve greater
success.
I try to use the same principle when
analysing people’s arguments for theological doctrines that I believe are
erroneous. In many cases, I have found with great majority of these mistaken
arguments, that the point of divergence and subsequent error, has been some
failure to grasp a Hebraic approach, a Hebraism of some sort. It seems to me
that two of the most significant are the Hebraic principle of ‘agency’ and the
Hebraic use of hyperbole[2].
Recently I have been involved in
debating Preterism, and I had also written a chapter addressing this
Hellenistic doctrine in my latest book ‘Doctrinal Pitfalls of Hellenism’.
Preterism had bothered me in the sense
that I could not see why so many, otherwise intelligent and rational students
of the Bible, were accepting this doctrine. It wasn’t enough that I could see
many realities that made the conclusions of Preterism untenable, what troubled
me was why these sincere men and women were choosing this doctrine in the first
place. What were they reading and interpreting that was so convincing to them.
I believe I now have a much better
understanding of where they are coming from, and I have to thank the many
Preterists, both ‘Partial’ and ‘Full’ that have discussed this doctrine with me
and helped me more fully understand their presuppositions and reasons.
So where do I see them going wrong?
Firstly, like most Hellenistic and
mainstream Christian students of the Bible, they start in the New Testament.
This is a classic mistake. The NT is built on the Tanakh. If we are to accept
it’s inspiration and veracity, then we must also accept the inspiration,
veracity and foundational position of the Tanakh.
Please see my article ‘Understanding the Bible 101’ at circumcisedheart.info for more detail on this issue.
Please see my article ‘Understanding the Bible 101’ at circumcisedheart.info for more detail on this issue.
The obvious problem with using the NT as your starting
position, is that it’s like trying to build a house with no foundations and
making the foundations up as you go along. It encourages not only the creation
of a ‘Christ’ (from the Greek ‘Christos’)
of your own making, rather than a Messiah (transliterated from the Hebrew משיח - Mashiach),
which is a Hebraic concept and entity, and not a Hellenistic/Greek one.
Also it encourages the creation of many doctrines that are simply not Biblical because they often contradict the Tanakh and therefore these interpretations contradict Yeshua himself and his Apostles, who all held the Tanakh (and only the Tanakh) as sacred and authoritative.
The Tanakh can not be contradicted by the New Testament. Expanded, explained, revealed, enriched most surely, but never contradicted.
If we allow contradictions, then the Almighty is subject to
change, though He said ‘I change not’ (Malachi
3:6), and He is then a liar and no different to Allah, the moon god, the god of
Islam!
Thus if there is some text in the NT that contradicts the Tanakh,
or at least, our interpretation of it, is contradictory, then we need to,
either reassess our interpretation, or identify this text as a corruption (if
we agree that the original autographs of the NT were in perfect accord with the
Tanakh).
Secondly, having started in the NT, the Preterists then read
the prophecies, which are mostly present tense, with some even past tense (or
prophetic perfect), and from their perspective of some 2000 years later, they
therefore see that the prophecies must have already been fulfilled.
This then leads them to look for events of the first century
through which such fulfillment must have come and they end up with the Fall of
Jerusalem in 70 CE.
So the mistake, the point of divergence, is primarily two-fold. First, starting in the wrong place and secondly, not being aware that Biblical Hebrew, the language of the Bible, the language and mindset of Israel in the first century has no future tense.
Let’s now look at this second point in
some detail.
It appears that the King James
translators of 1611 were not familiar with this problem of the Hebrew language
having no easy way of presenting something as ‘future tense’. As almost all
modern versions are based on the KJV, it is no wonder that the great majority
of translations distort the prophetic message of the Coming Age, the Kingdom of
God.
The Hebrew language almost always presents events as past or
present, even when those events are clearly still to occur and even perhaps
predicted to occur a long time into the future. This is strikingly clear and
unequivocal when these ‘events’ are divinely inspired prophetic utterances.
Add to this the fact that, as Hebrew is such an ‘action language’, the writer would always translate himself to the time of the event he was describing as if he were there and it was occurring as he/she witnessed it[3].
This was true for events that were long past, such as Moses descriptions of the Creation, and events that were still future.
Add to this the fact that, as Hebrew is such an ‘action language’, the writer would always translate himself to the time of the event he was describing as if he were there and it was occurring as he/she witnessed it[3].
This was true for events that were long past, such as Moses descriptions of the Creation, and events that were still future.
Thus
great care was sometimes needed to determine if the literal, present tense
description of an event meant that it was either:
1.
occurring at the time the writer spoke
about it (or in the very recent past to their making a record of it); or
2.
that it had occurred some day, years or
generations in the past, or was to occur even some days, years or thousands of
years in the future.
Part
of the reason for using ‘past ‘ or ‘present’ tense for prophecies was the
understanding of the Prophet of God, that the event was as good as accomplished,
if it was a promise of the Almighty.
The writer could speak of it as past, because it’s future occurrence was just as certain.
This mode of speaking is very common. It can be seen very clearly when we consider the Creation accounts, where the ‘fiats’ of God are declared as if presently being completed, and then actually take a considerable time to complete, even to the point where the order of completion may be different to the order of the ‘fiat’ or proclamation.
For some details on this please see my blog posts: “the Hebraic Mindset and The Fiats of God’ - http://globaltruthinternational.com/2012/10/11/the-hebraic-mindset-and-the-fiats-of-god/
and ‘The Fiats of God: Genesis Re-punctuated’ -http://globaltruthinternational.com/2012/10/12/the-fiats-of-god-genesis-re-punctuated/
The writer could speak of it as past, because it’s future occurrence was just as certain.
This mode of speaking is very common. It can be seen very clearly when we consider the Creation accounts, where the ‘fiats’ of God are declared as if presently being completed, and then actually take a considerable time to complete, even to the point where the order of completion may be different to the order of the ‘fiat’ or proclamation.
For some details on this please see my blog posts: “the Hebraic Mindset and The Fiats of God’ - http://globaltruthinternational.com/2012/10/11/the-hebraic-mindset-and-the-fiats-of-god/
and ‘The Fiats of God: Genesis Re-punctuated’ -http://globaltruthinternational.com/2012/10/12/the-fiats-of-god-genesis-re-punctuated/
Here is some examples of ‘prophetic
perfect’ in the Isaiah:
Isaiah 5:13 “Therefore my people have gone into captivity,
Because they have no knowledge;
Their
honorable men are famished,
And their multitude dried up with thirst.” -
written before the exile.
Isaiah 9:2 “The people living in darkness have seen a great light; upon those living in the land that lies in the shadow of death, light has dawned.” - written a long time before the event most Christians would argue this refers to.
Isaiah 9:2 “The people living in darkness have seen a great light; upon those living in the land that lies in the shadow of death, light has dawned.” - written a long time before the event most Christians would argue this refers to.
Isaiah 11:9 “Evil they do not, nor destroy in all My holy mountain,
For full hath been the earth with
the knowledge of YHVH, As the waters are covering the sea.” –
this prophecy is clearly still to be fulfilled.
Here also is a little of how Robert Young, the translator for Young’s Literal Translation (1862) explains it: “In referring to events which might be either past or future, (the Hebrew authors) were accustomed to act on the principle of transferring themselves mentally to the period and place of the events themselves, and were not content with coldly viewing them as those of a bygone or still coming time; hence the very frequent use of the present tense…
Here also is a little of how Robert Young, the translator for Young’s Literal Translation (1862) explains it: “In referring to events which might be either past or future, (the Hebrew authors) were accustomed to act on the principle of transferring themselves mentally to the period and place of the events themselves, and were not content with coldly viewing them as those of a bygone or still coming time; hence the very frequent use of the present tense…
1)
It would appear that the Hebrew writers,
when narrating or describing events which might be either past or future (such
as the case of Moses in reference to the Creation or the Deluge, on the one
hand, and to the Coming of the Messiah or the Calamities which were to befall
Israel, on the other), uniformly wrote as if they were alive at the time of the
occurrence of the events mentioned, and as eye-witnesses of what they are
narrating.
This principle of
translation has long been admitted by the best Biblical Expositors in reference
to the Prophetic Delineation of Gospel times, but it is equally applicable and
necessary to the historical narratives of Genesis, Ruth, etc.
2)
The Hebrew writers often express the certainty
of a thing taking place by putting it in the past tense, though the actual
fulfillment may not take place for ages. This is easily understood and
appreciated when the language is used by Yahweh, as when He says! in Gen.
15:18, "Unto thy seed I have given this land;" and in 17:4, "I,
lo, My covenant is with thee, and thou hast become a father of a multitude of
nations." The same thing is found in Gen. 23:11, where Ephron answers
Abraham: "Nay, my lord, hear me; the field I have given to thee, and the cave
that is in it; to thee I have given it; before the eyes of the sons of my
people I have given it to thee; bury thy dead."
And again in Abraham's answer to Ephron: "Only—if thou wouldst hear me—I have given the money of the field; accept from me, and I bury my dead there." Again in 2 Kings 5:6, the King of Syria, writing to the King of Israel, says: "Lo, I have sent unto thee Naaman, my servant, and thou hast recovered him from his leprosy,"—considering the King of Israel as his servant, a mere expression of the master's purpose is sufficient. In Judges 8:19, Gideon says to Zebah and Zalmunnah, "If ye had kept them alive, I had not slain you." So in Deut.31:18, " For all the evils that they have done"—shall have done. It would be easy to multiply examples, but the above may suffice for the present.
And again in Abraham's answer to Ephron: "Only—if thou wouldst hear me—I have given the money of the field; accept from me, and I bury my dead there." Again in 2 Kings 5:6, the King of Syria, writing to the King of Israel, says: "Lo, I have sent unto thee Naaman, my servant, and thou hast recovered him from his leprosy,"—considering the King of Israel as his servant, a mere expression of the master's purpose is sufficient. In Judges 8:19, Gideon says to Zebah and Zalmunnah, "If ye had kept them alive, I had not slain you." So in Deut.31:18, " For all the evils that they have done"—shall have done. It would be easy to multiply examples, but the above may suffice for the present.
… The Hebrew has only two tenses, which, for want of better terms, may be called Past and Present.
The past tenses is either perfect or imperfect, e. g., 'I lived in this house five years,' or 'I have lived in this house five years; this distinction may and can only be known by the context, which must in all cases be viewed from the writer's standing-point. In every other instance of its occurrence, it points out either:
A gentle imperative, e. g., "Lo, I have sent unto thee Nauman my servant, and thou hast recovered him from his leprosy;" see also Zecb. 1. 3, etc. or
A fixed determination that a certain thing shall be done, e. g., "Nay, my lord, hear me, the field I have given to thee, and the cave that is in it; to thee I have given it; before the eyes of the sons of my people I have given it to thee; bury thy dead;" and in the answer, "Only—if thou wouldst hear me—I have given the money of the field."
Thus, in the Hebrew language, Joel 2:28-32 reads as follows (Young's Literal Translation of the Holy Bible with the correct tenses of the verbs):
"And it hath come to pass afterwards,
I do pour out My spirit on all flesh, And prophesied have your sons and your
daughters, Your old men do dream dreams, Your young men do see visions. And
also on the men-servants, and on the maid-servants, In those days I do pour out
My Spirit. And I have given wonders in the heavens, and in the earth, Blood and
fire, and columns of smoke. The sun is turned to darkness, and the moon to
blood, Before the coming of the day of Jehovah, The great and the fearful. And
it hath come to pass, Every one who calleth in the name of Jehovah is
delivered, For in mount Zion and in Jerusalem there is an escape, As Jehovah
hath said, And among the remnants whom Jehovah is calling!" – from http://www.teleiosministries.com/pdfs/Research_Material/hebrew_has_no_future_tense.pdf
Interestingly, Robert
Young did not use the same approach when he quoted the Apostle Peter (Acts 2)
quoting Joel 2.
While, it seems very clear that when Joel first made this prophecy, it had not occurred even though he referred to these events in the present tense. It is also very clear that when the Apostle Peter quoted Joel, he would also have been speaking in the present tense, and that some of these events were in fact happening at the very instance in time.
Where we need to take great care though is in determining if ALL the events of this prophecy were occurring at that exact time.
For example, there is no historical evidence that the sun turned dark on that Shavuot (Pentecost) day, or that the moon was the colour of blood. There is also no clear evidence that this part of the prophecy was figurative, while the rest was literal. What seems much more likely is that the Apostle Peter saw that some of Joel’s prophecy was being fulfilled at the time, and that the Apostle Peter therefore anticipated that the rest would be fulfilled at some later time.
Partly because English does not have this problem with the lack of a future tense, and because the translators were not Hebrew prophets accustomed to using this ‘fiat’ language (where declaring a prophecy was to speak of something so certain to occur, that it may as well be a past event), most translators have not translated literally, but tried to reflect the reality as they understood it. Yet, they have not down this entirely consistently, so now apparent contradictions appear.
While, it seems very clear that when Joel first made this prophecy, it had not occurred even though he referred to these events in the present tense. It is also very clear that when the Apostle Peter quoted Joel, he would also have been speaking in the present tense, and that some of these events were in fact happening at the very instance in time.
Where we need to take great care though is in determining if ALL the events of this prophecy were occurring at that exact time.
For example, there is no historical evidence that the sun turned dark on that Shavuot (Pentecost) day, or that the moon was the colour of blood. There is also no clear evidence that this part of the prophecy was figurative, while the rest was literal. What seems much more likely is that the Apostle Peter saw that some of Joel’s prophecy was being fulfilled at the time, and that the Apostle Peter therefore anticipated that the rest would be fulfilled at some later time.
Partly because English does not have this problem with the lack of a future tense, and because the translators were not Hebrew prophets accustomed to using this ‘fiat’ language (where declaring a prophecy was to speak of something so certain to occur, that it may as well be a past event), most translators have not translated literally, but tried to reflect the reality as they understood it. Yet, they have not down this entirely consistently, so now apparent contradictions appear.
Let me give a couple of examples that I
think, illustrate the problem, and also offer something of a solution.
Look at Jude 14 -15. The NASB has “14 It was also about these men that
Enoch, in the seventh generation from Adam, prophesied,
saying, “Behold, the Lord came with
many thousands of His holy ones,
15 to execute judgment upon all, and to convict all the ungodly of all their ungodly deeds which they have done in an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken against Him.”
15 to execute judgment upon all, and to convict all the ungodly of all their ungodly deeds which they have done in an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken against Him.”
While a number of translators change
the tense here, Jude is referring to a prophetic statement in the Book of Enoch
(a first century BCE manuscript written in Hebrew), which speaks as if the coming
vision of the Messiah’s judgment, with a great many of the faithful had already
occurred.
The author of the Book of Enoch had used this ‘past tense’ or ‘prophetic perfect’[4] Hebraism to speak of a future event that he was so sure would one day occur. Jude, the brother of Yeshua and also a Hebrew and Israelite had quoted him and repeated this use. In translation into Greek, this ‘prophetic perfect’ had been maintained, and mostly even maintained in English (perhaps because the translators were translating a quote, rather than the words of the NT author).
The author of the Book of Enoch had used this ‘past tense’ or ‘prophetic perfect’[4] Hebraism to speak of a future event that he was so sure would one day occur. Jude, the brother of Yeshua and also a Hebrew and Israelite had quoted him and repeated this use. In translation into Greek, this ‘prophetic perfect’ had been maintained, and mostly even maintained in English (perhaps because the translators were translating a quote, rather than the words of the NT author).
I would expect that the great majority,
even of Preterists, would read Jude and accept that the Book of Enoch’s
prophecy of Godly judgment, where a great many of the faithful are witnesses
had not yet occurred when this prophecy was recorded. Neither had it occurred
when Jude wrote. I would also argue from known historical information that it
did not occur in 70 CE either, but here I might expect some disagreement from
Preterists.
Also consider Ephesians 2:6-7 “6 That is, God raised us up with the
Messiah Yeshua and seated us with
him in heaven, 7 in order to exhibit in the ages to come how infinitely
rich is his grace, how great is his kindness toward us who are united with the
Messiah Yeshua.” – CJB
Here, the translators generally have maintained the past tense in using the word ‘seated’, even though we know (I would hope!) that we are not currently in heaven, while at the same time believing that Yeshua is.
“That God has already seated his people with Christ in the heavenly realm is an idea unparalleled elsewhere in the Pauline corpus. It can best be understood as a statement of God’s purpose for his people—a purpose which is so sure of fulfillment that it can be spoken of as having already taken place.” - F. F. Bruce, ‘The Epistle to the Colossians, to Philemon, and to the Ephesians’ p 287.
Here, the translators generally have maintained the past tense in using the word ‘seated’, even though we know (I would hope!) that we are not currently in heaven, while at the same time believing that Yeshua is.
“That God has already seated his people with Christ in the heavenly realm is an idea unparalleled elsewhere in the Pauline corpus. It can best be understood as a statement of God’s purpose for his people—a purpose which is so sure of fulfillment that it can be spoken of as having already taken place.” - F. F. Bruce, ‘The Epistle to the Colossians, to Philemon, and to the Ephesians’ p 287.
Now look instead at Colossians 3:1 “So if you were raised along with
the Messiah, then seek the things above,
where the Messiah is sitting at the right hand of God.” - CJB
Here, heaven, the dwelling place of the
Messiah is now ‘above’. That is, the Apostle Paul is now telling us that we are
really on earth, not ‘seated’ in heaven. Both statements can’t literally be
true. Clearly, Ephesians 2:6 then is making use of this ‘prophetic perfect’
Hebraism.
While it can be very difficult when
reading the NT in the English language to see where the ‘prophetic perfect’ is
in use (especially since this Hebraism has been almost totally hidden by the
use of future tense in English), some help is found in that these verses are
often coupled with a second or third verse which clearly sets the context as
one of future fulfillment. Some discernment and care is still needed though, as
even Young’s Literal Translation does not appear to be consistent in its
approach either.
In fact, the prophetic perfect is
perhaps most cleverly and unsuspectedly hidden in passages which deal with
salvation, redemption, adoption, and glorification. All these concepts are
primarily future, as they address our future citizenship of the Coming Age and
ultimately, the New Universe. And yet, there is a sense in which they all apply
now.
All who are faithful are ‘saved’, and yet that salvation is a divine promise, not a currently existing reality in which the believer is free from all pain and evil, and from temptation to sin, etc. If we hold to the blessed assurance of our ‘hope’ then it may even seem to us as if this salvation is present now, but a clear-headed and sober assessment of the world we live in today should surely make it clear that the earth is not as ‘full of the knowledge of YHVH’ as ‘the sea covers the earth’.
All who are faithful are ‘saved’, and yet that salvation is a divine promise, not a currently existing reality in which the believer is free from all pain and evil, and from temptation to sin, etc. If we hold to the blessed assurance of our ‘hope’ then it may even seem to us as if this salvation is present now, but a clear-headed and sober assessment of the world we live in today should surely make it clear that the earth is not as ‘full of the knowledge of YHVH’ as ‘the sea covers the earth’.
And yet, it seems to me, that because
many Preterists have approached the prophecies in the NT in this incorrect
manner I have already alluded to, and been unaware of the Hebraism of the
‘prophetic perfect’, they have indeed embraced the belief that the earth is now
as ‘full of the knowledge of YHVH’ as ‘the sea covers the earth’. That is, they
actually believe that the Messiah has actually returned and that we are now in
the Coming Age.
It must surely be very difficult for
those who have been so led astray into believing such a clear falsehood; to now
turn back and re-assess their position. In the same way that Isaiah prophesied
that times would come when people would call evil good, and good evil (Isaiah
5:20), these Preterists have managed to strongly delude themselves, though it
would seem that they have done this most honestly and sincerely.
But there is always hope. The Almighty
is always willing to help us, if we decide to further circumcise our hearts; to
open our hearts, our emotional attachments and our logical faculties, and look
again with re-newed, Hebraic eyes.
I believe when Preterists are prepared
to suspend their judgment a little and revisit their understanding from the
perspective that I outline in my ‘Understanding
the Bible 101’ article, there is a fair chance that they may be enlightened,
and recognize the serious error that Preterism is, as well as the very
unhelpful implications that this doctrine develops.
I give some details on the negative
implications in my article ‘Preterism: Not Even on Judaism’s Radar’.
October 2013
www.circumcisedheart.info
[3] “[The past tense is used
instead of the future tense] when the speaker views the action as being as good
as done. This is very common in the Divine prophetic utterances where, though
the sense is literally future, it is regarded and spoken of as though it were
already accomplished in the Divine purpose and determination. The figure is to
show the absolute certainty of the things spoken of.” - Bullinger, ‘Figures of Speech’, p518
While preterist hold many prophecies already fulfilled, has not incredibly more confusion been created by mainstream Christianity's belief in salvation, redemption, adoption, and glorification having already been attained? I believe that relative to antichrist's impact on Christianity, the preterist's beliefs pale to insignificance.
ReplyDeleteNot sure exactly what you mean Stewart? Certainly mainstream Christianity (and its 40,000+ denominations) has a great many false doctrines but I would not generally include glorification has having already been attained, and I don't see these as being any more significant than Preterism - some such as the Trinity perhaps.
ReplyDeleteNot sure who and what you are referring to wrt 'the anti-christ'?